Church History

Why did Joseph claim that an ordinary funerary text was the Book of Abraham?
Why did he claim that it was written by Abraham’s own hand when it was dated to almost 2,000 years after Abraham’s time?
Why won’t the church comment on it officially?
Why is it still a book of canonized scripture when it was clearly a lie by Joseph?

Why was there no written account of the First Vision until 12 years after it supposedly happened?
Why was it not taught in the church until 22 years after it supposedly happened?
Why were there multiple, conflicting accounts that differed from each other in very significant details?
Why does the church only teach and talk about one of the versions?
Joseph Smith was clearly commanded in the official First Vision account to not join any church. Why did he join a Methodist church eight years later?

If Joseph Smith was really a prophet and had already translated a few lengthy antiquities, why would he fall for this hoax?
Obviously, Joseph was outright lying when he claimed it was a record of an ancient Jaredite. Doesn’t this call into question his other translations as well as his prophetic calling?

Why does the church purposely teach a completely false story about the translation process?
Why would Joseph use a stone he found in a well years before, and had previously used to seek treasure for money, to translate?
Why were the plates not visible and often not even present for the translation process?

Why would Joseph marry women who were already married to other men? (This is specifically banned in D&C 132)
Why did Joseph keep many of his marriages from Emma, especially the early ones? (This is specifically banned in D&C 132)
Why would Joseph marry 14-year old girls who were obviously not old enough to understand what they were doing?
Why did Joseph and other church leaders frequently lie about polygamy?
Why did the church claim it stopped polygamy because it became illegal when it was illegal the entire time?
The church claims that Joseph Smith never had children with his plural wives. Since the Book of Mormon says that is the only justification for polygamy, why did Joseph Smith have other wives?
How was Joseph Smith able to marry Fanny Alger before the sealing power was restored?
Why did polygamous marriage, including official temple sealings, continue after the 1890 manifesto?
Hinckley stated that polygamy is not doctrinal. Why can a man still get sealed to multiple wives if the civil aspect of previous marriages has been annulled or if previous wives have died? Why are women not allowed that same privilege?

Why do non-Mormon scholars, archeologists and anthropologists nearly universally agree that the Book of Mormon is not a historical account of the people on this continent?
How did the Book of Mormon authors quote verses from Isaiah that did not exist when they left?
Why did those quotes match up exactly with the English translation of the Bible that was common in Joseph Smith’s day (KJV)?
Why does the Book of Mormon mention numerous flora, fauna, technologies, and items that didn’t exist on the American continent before the Europeans came?
Why doesn’t it mention so much of the flora, fauna, and technologies that did exist?
Why, if it is the most correct book on earth, has it been changed significantly and why does it contradict other passages in the Standard Works?
If Elder B.H. Roberts, the assistant church historian and member of the Presidency of the Seventy, was convinced that Joseph Smith made up the Book of Mormon, isn’t that a problem?

Why was the temple ceremony copied almost wholesale from the Masons?
Why do temple prep classes not properly prepare members to make incredibly solemn covenants?
Why has the temple ceremony changed so significantly over the years?
Why did the temple ceremony include for many years an oath of vengeance against the US?
Why is it required to know Masonic signs, handshakes, and oaths to get into heaven?